Try CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps To Pass Check Point Certified Security Expert R81

test2022-07-15T03:53:49+00:00

By test 156-315.81 practice exam, CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps, CCSE R81, Check Point Certified Security Expert R81, latest 156-315.81 questions and answers 0 Comments

If you are looking for some help for your 156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 exam preparation and the assurance of getting your exam passed, you’re at the right page. The newest FreeTestShare CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps are designed to test your knowledge and are based on the exam objectives. These CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps will help you get familiar with the kind of questions that will appear on the Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 test. If you want to obtain real 156-315.81 questions with verified answers for the actual exam, FreeTestShare CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps are your best choice for your final success.

To discover how prepared you are, take this 156-315.81 sample exam first!

Page 1 of 12

1. To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab.

How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

2 Internal; External

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

2. You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL.

How can you achieve this goal?

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

cpconfig; reboot required

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

cpconfig; reboot not required

3. SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

detect only

inline/prevent or detect

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

4. Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

Is configured using cpconfig

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

5. There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R81 Management API.

Which one is NOT correct?

Using Web Services

Using Mgmt_cli tool

Using CLISH

Using SmartConsole GUI console

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

6. Which of the following process pulls application monitoring status?

fwd

fwm

cpwd

cpd

7. Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

Accept; redirect

Accept; drop

Redirect; drop

Drop; accept

8. Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

50%

75%

80%

15%

9. What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

Shared User Certificates

Shared Secret Passwords

Unique Passwords

10. What is the difference between an event and a log?

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

Log and Events are synonyms

Page 2 of 12

11. Which is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Synchronized

Never been synchronized

Lagging

Collision

12. How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

13. When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

SecureID

SecurID

Complexity

TacAcs

14. In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

Big l

Little o

Little i

Big O

15. Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a __________ for user authentication.

Shared secret

Certificate

One-time password

Token

16. What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

rpm -Uv

Software Update Service

UnixinstallScript

17. What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

18. Which component is NOT required to communicate with the Web Services API?

API key

session ID token

content-type

Request payload

19. What is the best method to upgrade a Security Management Server to R81.x when it is not connected to the Internet?

CPUSE offline upgrade only

Advanced upgrade or CPUSE offline upgrade

Advanced Upgrade only

SmartUpdate offline upgrade

20. SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs.

What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Smart Cloud Services

Load Sharing Mode Services

Threat Agent Solution

Public Cloud Services

Page 3 of 12

21. What does the Log "Views" tab show when SmartEvent is Correlating events?

A list of common reports

Reports for customization

Top events with charts and graphs

Details of a selected logs

22. What is the default size of NAT table fwx_alloc?

20000

35000

25000

10000

23. Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Primary-backup

Source address based

Round robin

Load Sharing

24. How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

Once a week

Once an hour

Twice per day

Once per day

25. The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

SmartView Monitor

SmartEventWeb

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

SmartView

26. If a “ping”-packet is dropped by FW1 Policy Con how many inspection Points do you see this packet in “fw monitor”?

“i", “l” and “o”

I don’t see it in fw monitor

“i" only

“i" and “l”

27. Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

SmartEvent Server

Correlation Unit

Log Consolidator

Log Server

28. Which GUI client is supported in R81?

SmartProvisioning

SmartView Tracker

SmartView Monitor

SmartLog

29. True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

30. What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy.

There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules

On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a stateful manner

Page 4 of 12

31. What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

32. One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

33. Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically.

How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status version

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer agent

34. Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

User data base corruption

LDAP conflicts

Traffic issues

Phase two key negotiations

35. You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference.

What command should you use?

write mem <filename>

show config Cf <filename>

save config Co <filename>

save configuration <filename>

36. You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway.

Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

fwd

fwm

cpd

cpwd

37. What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

IPS

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

CoreXL

38. Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Drop

NAT

None

39. When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Weight

Authenticated timeout

Schedule

Rate

40. Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

fwm

cpmd

cpm

cpd

Page 5 of 12

41. Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

cphaprob interface

cphaprob CI interface

cphaprob Ca if

cphaprob stat

42. Which file contains the host address to be published, the MAC address that needs to be associated with the IP Address, and the unique IP of the interface that responds to ARP request?

/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

/var/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

$CPDIR/conf/local.arp

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp

43. Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R81 gateways is installed during the _______ .

Firewall policy install

Threat Prevention policy install

Anti-bot policy install

Access Control policy install

44. What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R81.10 code?

Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API

OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API and Policy Editor API

CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

45. Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Symmetric routing

Failovers

Asymmetric routing

Anti-Spoofing

46. Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

18191

18190

8983

19009

47. Within the Check Point Firewall Kernel resides Chain Modules, which are individually responsible for the inspection of a specific blade or feature that has been enabled in the configuration of the gateway. For Wire mode configuration, chain modules marked with _______ will not apply.

ffffffff

00000001

00000002

00000003

48. SmartConsole R81 x requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent.

19009, 19090 & 443

19009, 19004 & 18190

18190 & 443

19009, 18190 & 443

49. Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

Takes less than a second to complete

Works on MS Office and PDF files only

Always delivers a file

Takes minutes to complete (less than 3 minutes)

50. When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?

RADIUS

Remote Access and RADIUS

AD Query

AD Query and Browser-based Authentication

Page 6 of 12

51. Can Check Point and Third-party Gateways establish a certificate-based Site-to-Site VPN tunnel?

Yes, but they need to have a mutually trusted certificate authority

Yes, but they have to have a pre-shared secret key

No, they cannot share certificate authorities

No, Certificate based VPNs are only possible between Check Point devices

52. If SecureXL is disabled which path is used to process traffic?

Passive path

Medium path

Firewall path

Accelerated path

53. When users connect to the Mobile Access portal they are unable to open File Shares.

Which log file would you want to examine?

cvpnd.elg

httpd.elg

vpnd.elg

fw.elg

54. With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

55. The Check Point history feature in R81 provides the following:

View install changes and install specific version

View install changes

Policy Installation Date, view install changes and install specific version

Policy Installation Date only

56. The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:

Marks logs that individually are not events, but may be part of a larger pattern to be identified later.

Generates an event based on the Event policy.

Assigns a severity level to the event.

Takes a new log entry that is part of a group of items that together make up an event, and adds it to an ongoing event.

57. An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server. While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret the administrator found that the check box to enable pre-shared secret and cannot be enabled.

Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.

Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security Gateway.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SM

The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.

58. Office mode means that:

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

59. Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

SOAP

REST

XLANG

XML-RPC

60. Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

logd

fwd

fwm

cpd

Page 7 of 12

61. To add a file to the Threat Prevention Whitelist, what two items are needed?

File name and Gateway

Object Name and MD5 signature

MD5 signature and Gateway

IP address of Management Server and Gateway

62. Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

SmartEvent Maps

SmartEvent

Identity Awareness

SmartConsole Toolbars

63. What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

64. What CLI utility runs connectivity tests from a Security Gateway to an AD domain controller?

test_connectivity_ad Cd <domain>

test_ldap_connectivity Cd <domain>

test_ad_connectivity Cd <domain>

ad_connectivity_test Cd <domain>

65. You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization.

What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

TCP port 443

TCP port 257

TCP port 256

UDP port 8116

66. What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Lagging

Synchronized

Never been synchronized

Collision

67. Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.10 SmartConsole application?

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

68. Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

69. John is using Management HA.

Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

secondary Smartcenter

active Smartenter

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

primary Smartcenter

70. What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

Page 8 of 12

71. What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

Capsule Workspace

Capsule Mail

Capsule VPN

Secure Workspace

72. If an administrator wants to add manual NAT for addresses now owned by the Check Point firewall, what else is necessary to be completed for it to function properly?

Nothing - the proxy ARP is automatically handled in the R81 version

Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called /etc/conf/local.arp

Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called $FWDIR/conf/local.arp

Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called $CPDIR/conf/local.arp

73. In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

74. Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

Proactively detects threats.

Delivers file with original content.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

75. What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

It will not block malicious traffic

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

76. Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

clusterXL_admin down

cphaprob_admin down

clusterXL_admin down-p

set clusterXL down-p

77. Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

15 sec

60 sec

5 sec

30 sec

78. CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database.

The database is:

MySQL

Postgres SQL

MarisDB

SOLR

79. Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Identity Awareness Web Services

OPSEC SDK

Mobile Access

Management

80. To find records in the logs that shows log records from the Application & URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic was dropped, what would be the query syntax?

blada: application control AND action:drop

blade."application control AND action;drop

(blade: application control AND action;drop)

blade;"application control AND action:drop

Page 9 of 12

81. In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log.

Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Accounting

Suppression

Accounting/Suppression

Accounting/Extended

82. In terms of Order Rule Enforcement, when a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom.

Which of the following statements is correct?

If the Action of the matching rule is Accept the gateway will drop the packet

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop the gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet

If the rule does not matched in the Network policy it will continue to other enabled polices

83. What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

fwm compile

fwm load

fwm fetch

fwm install

84. Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

Destination port

Data type

File attributes

Application

85. While using the Gaia CLI. what is the correct command to publish changes to the management server?

json publish

mgmt publish

mgmt_cli commit

commit

86. Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

87. What SmartEvent component creates events?

Consolidation Policy

Correlation Unit

SmartEvent Policy

SmartEvent GUI

88. You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

cpinfo Ch all

cpinfo Co hotfix

cpinfo Cl hotfix

cpinfo Cy all

89. Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

SmartMonitor

SmartView Web Application

SmartReporter

SmartTracker

90. What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority C Priority Delta

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority C Priority Delta

Page 10 of 12

91. When deploying SandBlast, how would a Threat Emulation appliance benefit from the integration of ThreatCloud?

ThreatCloud is a database-related application which is located on-premise to preserve privacy of company-related data

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the CheckPoint customers to form a virtual cloud consisting of a combination of all on-premise private cloud environments

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for Check Point customers to benefit from VMWare ESXi infrastructure which supports the Threat Emulation Appliances as virtual machines in the EMC Cloud

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the Check Point customers to share information about malicious and benign files that all of the customers can benefit from as it makes emulation of known files unnecessary

92. The Compliance Blade allows you to search for text strings in many windows and panes, to search for a value in a field, what would your syntax be?

field_name:string

name field:string

name_field:string

field name:string

93. Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

To satellites through center only

To center only

To center and to other satellites through center

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets

94. You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app.

Which application would you use?

SmartEvent Client Info

SecuRemote

Check Point Protect

Check Point Capsule Cloud

95. You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Inspect/Bypass

Inspect/Prevent

Prevent/Bypass

Detect/Bypass

96. What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

97. What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Firewall logs

Configuration and database files

System message logs

OS and network statistics

98. Choose the correct syntax to add a new host named “emailserver1” with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA Management CLI?

mgmt_cli add host name “myHost12 ip” address 10.50.23.90

mgmt_cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt_cli add host “emailserver1” address 10.50.23.90

mgmt_cli add host name “emailserver1” ip-address 10.50.23.90

99. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packet acceleration?

Source address

Protocol

Destination port

VLAN Tag

100. Why would an administrator see the message below?

A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed up first before proceeding.

A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.

A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.

A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.

Page 11 of 12

101. In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

TXT, XML and CSV

PDF and TXT

PDF, HTML, and XML

PDF and HTML

102. To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

cphaprob-a if

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

103. You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher.

How can you enable them?

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

fw ctl multik pq enable

104. What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Threat Emulation

Threat Simulator

Threat Extraction

Threat Cloud

105. In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Through the Unified Policy

Through the Mobile Console

From SmartDashboard

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

106. What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

cpinfo -hf

cpinfo Cy all

cpinfo Cget hf

cpinfo installed_jumbo

107. Fill in the blank: The R81 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Block Port Overflow

Local Interface Spoofing

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

Adaptive Threat Prevention

108. You are the administrator for ABC Corp. You have logged into your R81 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.

109. R81.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Versions R77 and higher

Versions R76 and higher

Versions R75.20 and higher

Versions R75 and higher

110. What are the two high availability modes?

Load Sharing and Legacy

Traditional and New

Active and Standby

New and Legacy

Page 12 of 12

111. Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

UserCheck

Active Directory Query

Account Unit Query

User Directory Query

112. Sieve is a Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Bank with a large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances Steve's manager. Diana asks him to provide firewall connection table details from one of the firewalls for which he is responsible.

Which of these commands may impact performance briefly and should not be used during heavy traffic times of day?

fw tab -t connections -s

fw tab -t connections

fw tab -t connections -c

fw tab -t connections -f

113. On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user.

Obligatory usage of Captive Portal.

The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication.

114. After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

115. SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Web Browsers and user devices

DMZ server

Cloud

Email servers

116. Which of the following is NOT supported by CPUSE?

Automatic download of full installation and upgrade packages

Automatic download of hotfixes

Installation of private hotfixes

Offline installations

117. What is the command to show SecureXL status?

fwaccel status

fwaccel stats -m

fwaccel -s

fwaccel stat

Try CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps To Pass Check Point Certified Security Expert R81

Try CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps To Pass Check Point Certified Security Expert R81

Share this post

Author

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

Related Posts

Check Point CCME 156-835 Actual Practice Exam Questions

Download CCSA 156-215.81 Dumps For Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81

Check Point Certified Cloud Specialist 156-560 Dumps Questions

Try Free Check Point CCTE 156-585 Practice Exam Questions