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1. What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two.)

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface.

Include the flow record and the flow importer.

Can track ingress and egress information.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces.

2. Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two)

Patch for cross-site scripting.

Perform backups to the private cloud.

Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.

Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.

Install a spam and virus email filter.

3. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

privilege level for an authorized user to this router

access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

4. What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?

Cisco CWS eliminates the need to backhaul traffic through headquarters for remote workers whereas Cisco WSA does not.

Cisco CWS minimizes the load on the internal network and security infrastructure as compared to Cisco WS

URL categories are updated more frequently on Cisco CWS than they are on Cisco WS

Content scanning for SAAS cloud applications is available through Cisco CWS and not available through Cisco WS

5. Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data within a network perimeter?

public cloud

private cloud

cloud web services

network AMP

6. What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?

Its events match all traffic classes in parallel.

It tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.

It tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.

It provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.

7. Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view of activity?

SNMP

model-driven telemetry

SMTP

syslog

8. Which method of attack is used by a hacker to send malicious code through a web application to an unsuspecting user to request that the victim's web browser executes the code?

buffer overflow

browser WGET

SQL injection

cross-site scripting

9. Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.

A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy.

NSEL can be used without a collector configured.

A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.

10. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Page 2 of 11

11. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of authentication is in use?

LDAP authentication for Microsoft Outlook

POP3 authentication

SMTP relay server authentication

external user and relay mail authentication

12. Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

routed mode

active mode

transparent mode

inline mode

passive monitor-only mode

13. Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?

malware

non malicious

pristine

dirty

14. What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

Activate SSL decryption.

Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license

Enable IP Layer enforcement.

Enable Intelligent Proxy.

15. Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

cross-site scripting

DDoS

buffer overflow

water holing

16. Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

Use antispyware software

Implement email filtering techniques.

Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

Define security group memberships.

17. A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual appliance from one physical host to another physical host by using VMware vMotion.

What is a requirement for both physical hosts?

The hosts must run Cisco AsyncOS 10.0 or greater.

The hosts must run different versions of Cisco AsyncO

The hosts must have access to the same defined network.

The hosts must use a different datastore than the virtual appliance.

18. A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on host A. The tunnel is not being established to host B.

What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on host

Enter the command with a different password on host

Enter the same command on host

Change the password on host A to the default password.

19. What are two ways that Cisco Container Platform provides value to customers who utilize cloud service providers? (Choose two.)

Allows developers to create code once and deploy to multiple clouds

helps maintain source code for cloud deployments

manages Docker containers

manages Kubernetes clusters

Creates complex tasks for managing code

20. Refer to the exhibit.

What will happen when the Python script is executed?

The hostname will be translated to an IP address and printed.

The hostname will be printed for the client in the client ID field.

The script will pull all computer hostnames and print them.

The script will translate the IP address to FODN and print it

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21. What is the difference between a vulnerability and an exploit?

A vulnerability is a hypothetical event for an attacker to exploit.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited by an attacker.

An exploit is a weakness that can cause a vulnerability in the network.

An exploit is a hypothetical event that causes a vulnerability in the network.

22. What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?

It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.

It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.

It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just not maliciously.

It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.

23. Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machine-digestible format?

OpenC2

OpenlOC

CybOX

STIX

24. An engineer needs a cloud solution that will monitor traffic, create incidents based on events, and integrate with other cloud solutions via an API.

Which solution should be used to accomplish this goal?

SIEM

CASB

Adaptive MFA

Cisco Cloudlock

25. What is a benefit of performing device compliance?

providing multi-factor authentication

device classification and authorization

providing attribute-driven policies

verification of the latest OS patches

26. Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?

aaa new-model

auth-type all

ip device-tracking

aaa server radius dynamic-author

27. Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)

push

options

connect

put

get

28. An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to enable a separated email transfer flow from the Internet and from the LAN.

Which deployment mode must be used to accomplish this goal?

single interface

multi-context

transparent

two-interface

29. Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Choose two)

AES-BAC

AES-ABC

HMAC-SHA1/SHA2

Triple AMC-CBC

AES-CBC

30. What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)

They allow the user to configure flow information to perform customized traffic identification

They provide attack prevention by dropping the traffic

They provide accounting and billing enhancements

They converge multiple accounting technologies into one accounting mechanism

They provide monitoring of a wider range of IP packet information from Layer 2 to 4

Page 4 of 11

31. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right.

32. What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

Mail Submission Agent

Mail User Agent

Mail Transfer Agent

Mail Delivery Agent

33. How does Cisco Stealth watch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

It delivers visibility and threat detection.

It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.

It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.

It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.

34. An administrator is adding a new switch onto the network and has configured AAA for network access control. When testing the configuration, the RADIUS authenticates to Cisco ISE but is being rejected.

Why is the ip radius source-interface command needed for this configuration?

Only requests that originate from a configured NAS IP are accepted by a RADIUS server

The RADIUS authentication key is transmitted only from the defined RADIUS source interface

RADIUS requests are generated only by a router if a RADIUS source interface is defined.

Encrypted RADIUS authentication requires the RADIUS source interface be defined

35. After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations.

Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?

Perform a trace.

Configure the tracking config command to enable message tracking.

Review the log files.

Generate a system report.

36. Refer to the exhibit.

How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

Traffic is proximed through the intelligent proxy.

Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.

Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled and allowed.

Traffic is allowed but logged.

37. When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Spero analysis

sandbox analysis

dynamic analysis

malware analysis

38. An engineer enabled SSL decryption for Cisco Umbrella intelligent proxy and needs to ensure that traffic is inspected without alerting end-users.

Which action accomplishes this goal?

Restrict access to only websites with trusted third-party signed certificates.

Modify the user’s browser settings to suppress errors from Cisco Umbrella.

Upload the organization root CA to Cisco Umbrella.

Install the Cisco Umbrella root CA onto the user’s device.

39. What is a difference between GETVPN and iPsec?

GETVPN provides key management and security association management.

GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub.

GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1.

GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices.

40. What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?

user and entity behavior analytics

controls malicious cloud apps

detects anomalies

data loss prevention

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41. What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring purposes?

Telemetry uses a pull, method which makes it more reliable than SNM

Telemetry uses push and pull, which makes it more scalable than SNM

Telemetry uses a push method which makes it faster than SNM

Telemetry uses push and pull which makes it more secure than SNM

42. What is a commonality between DMVPN and Flex VPN technologies?

Flex VPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes

Flex VPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol

Flex VPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms

IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and Flex VPN

43. What is the intent of a basic SYN flood attack?

to solicit DNS responses

to exceed the threshold limit of the connection queue

to flush the register stack to re-initiate the buffers

to cause the buffer to overflow

44. Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat? (Choose two)

westbound AP

southbound API

northbound API

eastbound API

45. An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be prevented from quickly identifying all valid recipients.

What must be done on the Cisco ESA to accomplish this goal?

Configure incoming content filters

Use Bounce Verification

Configure Directory Harvest Attack Prevention

Bypass LDAP access queries in the recipient access table

46. An organization is selecting a cloud architecture and does not want to be responsible for patch management of the operating systems.

Why should the organization select either Platform as a Service or Infrastructure as a Service for this environment?

Platform as a Service because the customer manages the operating system.

Infrastructure as a Service because the customer manages the operating system.

Platform as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system.

Infrastructure as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system.

47. An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In order to take action on the messages, it must be determined how harmful the messages are and this needs to happen dynamically.

What must be configured to accomplish this?

Configure the Cisco WSA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

Configure the Cisco ESA to receive real-time updates from Talos

Configure the Cisco WSA to receive real-time updates from Talos

Configure the Cisco ESA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

48. Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?

user deployment of Layer 3 networks

multiple context mode

clustering

IPv6

49. Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

SSL VPN

GET VPN

Flex VPN

DMVPN

50. A network administrator is configuring SNMPv3 on a new router. The users have already been created; however, an additional configuration is needed to facilitate access to the SNMP views.

What must the administrator do to accomplish this?

map SNMPv3 users to SNMP views

set the password to be used for SNMPv3 authentication

define the encryption algorithm to be used by SNMPv3

specify the UDP port used by SNMP

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51. Due to a traffic storm on the network, two interfaces were error-disabled, and both interfaces sent SNMP traps.

Which two actions must be taken to ensure that interfaces are put back into service? (Choose two)

Have Cisco Prime Infrastructure issue an SNMP set command to re-enable the ports after the pre configured interval.

Use EEM to have the ports return to service automatically in less than 300 seconds.

Enter the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the interfaces.

Enable the snmp-server enable traps command and wait 300 seconds

Ensure that interfaces are configured with the error-disable detection and recovery feature

52. Using Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics, which platform automatically blocks risky sites, and test unknown sites for hidden advanced threats before allowing users to click them?

Cisco Identity Services Engine

Cisco Enterprise Security Appliance

Cisco Web Security Appliance

Cisco Advanced Stealthwatch Appliance

53. An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUI into a new endpoint group.

Which probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

DHCP

NMAP

NetFlow

SNMP

54. Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)

Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

55. Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

ping of death

HTTP flood

virus

NTP amplification

56. An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth by blocking malicious destinations prior to a connection being established. The solution must be able to block certain applications from being used within the network.

Which product should be used to accomplish this goal?

Cisco Firepower

Cisco Umbrella

ISE

AMP

57. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to display this output?

show dot1x all

show dot1x

show dot1x all summary

show dot1x interface gi1/0/12

58. For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (Choose two)

SDP

LDAP

subordinate CA

SCP

HTTP

59. What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a server?

It is the password for the certificate that is needed to install it with.

It provides the server information so a certificate can be created and signed

It provides the certificate client information so the server can authenticate against it when installing

It is the certificate that will be loaded onto the server

60. Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from Cisco and other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?

Advanced Malware Protection

Platform Exchange Grid

Multifactor Platform Integration

Firepower Threat Defense

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61. Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has the latest OS updates and patches installed on the system?

Cisco Endpoint Security Analytics

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

Endpoint Compliance Scanner

Security Posture Assessment Service

62. Which technology should be used to help prevent an attacker from stealing usernames and passwords of users within an organization?

RADIUS-based REAP

fingerprinting

Dynamic ARP Inspection

multifactor authentication

63. Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?

Cisco HyperFlex

Cisco Cloudlock

Cisco Firepower

Cisco SDA

64. Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

accounting

encryption

assurance

automation

authentication

65. An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE.

Which CoA type achieves this goal?

Port Bounce

CoA Reauth

CoA Session Query

CoA Terminate

66. Why is it important to patch endpoints consistently?

Patching reduces the attack surface of the infrastructure.

Patching helps to mitigate vulnerabilities.

Patching is required per the vendor contract.

Patching allows for creating a honeypot.

67. When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

Multiple routers or VRFs are required.

Traffic is distributed statically by default.

Floating static routes are required.

HSRP is used for faliover.

68. Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?

Monthly

Yearly

Contractor

Full-Time

69. What is a prerequisite when integrating a Cisco ISE server and an AD domain?

Place the Cisco ISE server and the AD server in the same subnet

Configure a common administrator account

Configure a common DNS server

Synchronize the clocks of the Cisco ISE server and the AD server

70. What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two)

Service Provider managed

Public managed

Hybrid managed

User managed

Enterprise managed

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71. A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower.

What must be configured to accomplish this?

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

72. Which parameter is required when configuring a Netflow exporter on a Cisco Router?

DSCP value

Source interface

Exporter name

Exporter description

73. An organization wants to secure users, data and applications in the cloud. The solution must be API-based and operate as a cloud-native CASB.

Which solution must be used for this implementation?

Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall

Cisco Cloud Email Security

Cisco Umbrella

Cisco Cloud lock

74. What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.

In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which are untrusted

DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCP snooping binding database.

DAI associates a trust state with each switch.

75. With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of all files that have been executed in your environment?

Prevalence

File analysis

Detections

Vulnerable software

Threat root cause

76. Which system facilitates deploying microsegmentation and multi-tenancy services with a policybased container?

SDLC

Docker

Lambda

Contiv

77. Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

PFS

HMAC

MD5

SHA

78. Which attribute has the ability to change during the RADIUS CoA?

NTP

authorization

accessibility

membership

79. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status.

What is the problem according to this command output?

hashing algorithm mismatch

encryption algorithm mismatch

authentication key mismatch

interesting traffic was not applied

80. An engineer configures new features within the Cisco Umbrella dashboard and wants to identify and proxy traffic that is categorized as risky domains and may contain safe and malicious content.

Which action accomplishes these objectives?

Configure URL filtering within Cisco Umbrella to track the URLs and proxy the requests for those categories and below.

Configure intelligent proxy within Cisco Umbrella to intercept and proxy the requests for only those categories.

Upload the threat intelligence database to Cisco Umbrella for the most current information on reputations and to have the destination lists block them.

Create a new site within Cisco Umbrella to block requests from those categories so they can be sent to the proxy device.

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81. What is a benefit of using a multifactor authentication strategy?

It provides visibility into devices to establish device trust.

It provides secure remote access for applications.

It provides an easy, single sign-on experience against multiple applications

It protects data by enabling the use of a second validation of identity.

82. Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity professionals remain aware of the ongoing and most prevalent threats?

PSIRT

Talos

CSIRT

DEVNET

83. Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

phishing

teardrop

DDOS

brute force

man-in-the-middle

84. What is the term for having information about threats and threat actors that helps mitigate harmful events that would otherwise compromise networks or systems?

trusted automated exchange

Indicators of Compromise

The Exploit Database

threat intelligence

85. An administrator configures a new destination list in Cisco Umbrella so that the organization can block specific domains for its devices.

What should be done to ensure that all subdomains of domain.com are blocked?

Configure the *.com address in the block list.

Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list

Configure the domain.com address in the block list

86. An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware.

Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransom ware infection? (Choose two)

Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network.

Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.

Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before allowing access on the network.

Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on the network.

Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on the network.

87. What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?

It provides operating system patches on the endpoints for security.

It provides flow-based visibility for the endpoints network connections.

It enables behavioral analysis to be used for the endpoints.

It protects endpoint systems through application control and real-time scanning.

88. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right

89. A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet. Extranet, and Internet, with a proxy configuration running in explicit mode.

Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

Transparent mode.

Forward file.

PAC file.

Bridge mode.

90. Cisco SensorBase gaihers threat information from a variety of Cisco products and services and performs analytics to find patterns on threats.

Which term describes this process?

deployment

consumption

authoring

sharing

Page 10 of 11

91. When choosing an algorithm to us, what should be considered about Diffie Hellman and RSA for key establishment?

RSA is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

RSA is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

DH is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

DH is on asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

92. Refer to the exhibit.

What will happen when this Python script is run?

The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP

The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP

The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP

The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP

93. How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware through that connection.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order to poison the resolutions.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a malicious domain.

94. Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?

private

hybrid

community

public

95. A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the “Chat and Instant Messaging” category.

Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?

96. What is the benefit of integrating cisco ISE with a MDM solution?

It provides the ability to update other applications on the mobile device.

It provides compliance checks for access to the network.

It provides the ability to add applications to the mobile device through Cisco IS

It provides network device administration access.

97. Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

Google Cloud Platform

Red Hat Enterprise Visualization

VMware ESXi

Amazon Web Services

98. An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration.

The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth.

Which product meets all of these requirements?

Cisco Identity Services Engine

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

Cisco Stealthwatch

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

99. Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

protect

malware

URL filtering

control

100. An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA.

Which Cisco ASA command must be used?

ip flow monitor input

flow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055

flow exporter

ip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055

Page 11 of 11

101. Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network architecture dynamically makes configuration changes on switches within the network?

westbound AP

southbound API

northbound API

eastbound API

102. Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

TLSv1.2

TLSv1.1

BJTLSv1

DTLSv1

103. An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network but does not want the network devices to send metadata to Cisco Firepower.

Which feature should be used to accomplish this?

NetFlow

Packet Tracer

Network Discovery

Access Control

104. Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

105. An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so.

Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

106. A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures. The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work.

What is the reason for this failure?

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies.

107. A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

It forwards the packet without validation.

It drops the packet without validation.

108. An administrator is configuring a DHCP server to better secure their environment. They need to be able to rate-limit the traffic and ensure that legitimate requests are not dropped.

How would this be accomplished?

Set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

Set the DHCP snooping bit to 1.

Add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

Enable ARP inspection for the required VLA

109. A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that has never been seen on the network.

Which two actions should be selected to allow the traffic to pass without inspection? (Choose two)

permit

trust

reset

allow

monitor