Get Your CAPM Certification With Real Questions and Answers

1. Which task will a project manager und e r t ake while conducting Project Resource Ma n agement?

2. Which is the correct formula for calculating expected acti v ity cost for three-point estimating? A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp ) /4

B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp ) /6

D. Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) /6

3. Soft logic i s also known as what type of dependency? A. External

B. Discretionary

C. Mandato r y D. Internal

4. Which C ollect Requi r ements output links the p roduct requi r ements to t h e deliverabl e s that satisfy











them?

5. Which technique is used in Perfo r m Quantitative Risk Analy si s ? A. Sensitivity analysis

B. Probability and impact matrix C. Risk data quality assessment D. Risk cat e gorization

6. Which role does the pro j ect manager resemb l e best? A. Orchestra conductor

B. Facilities supervisor C. Functional manager D. School principal

7. Which of the following is the correct network diagram for t he table?

8. As the project progresses, w hich of the following is routinely collected f r om the proj ec t activities? A. Communication management activities

B. Change r equests

C. Configur a tion verification and a u dit D. W ork performance inf o rmation

9. According to the PMI T alent T riangle, leadersh i p skills re l ate to the ability to: A. understand the high-level overview of the organ i zation

B. tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C. work with stakeholders to develop an app r opria t e project de l ivery

D. guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach proj ec t goals

10. The r u n chart crea t ed during the Perform Quality Control pr oc ess on a project is used to show the: A. relationship betwe e n two variables

B. data points plotted in t he or d er in w hich they occur

C. most common cause of p roblems in a process

D. frequency of occurren c e

11. Which C ontrol Scope input is compar e d to actual results to determine if correcti v e action is required for the project?

12. Which of the following is a t ool and technique for Est i mate A ctivity Durations? A. Parametric estimating

B. Monte Carlo analysis C. Alternatives analysis D. Bottom-up estimating

13. Which d ocument in c ludes the pro j ect scope, major deliver a b l es, assumptions, and constraints? A. Project c h arter

B. Project scope statement C. Scope managem e nt plan D. Project document upd a tes

14. Which tool or technique is r equir e d in order to determine th e project bu d get? A. Cost of quality

B. Hi s torical relationships

C. Project mana g ement software











D. Forecasting

15. Which of the following includes how requirements activ i ties will be planned, tracked, and reported? A. Configuration mana ge ment plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Require m ents manag e ment plan

D. Schedule baseline

16. Which a re the main objectiv e s of Project Risk Managem e nt?

17. A contr a ctor has provided ha n ds- o n training to a team memb e r on new equip m ent that has been purchased a s part of the project. The team memb e r has acquir e d key insight and exper i e nc e on the new equipm e nt.

What is this an example of? A. Explic i t knowledge

B. Formal education C. T acit knowled g e D. Lessons lear n ed

18. Requirements docu m entation will typic a lly c o ntain at least:

19. Labo r , m aterials, equipment, and supplies are examples of: A. Resource attributes.

B. Resource types.

C. Resource categories.

D. Resource breakd o wn structures (RBS).

20. Which e nterprise en v ironmen t al f a ctors m a y influence Plan Schedule Managem e nt? A. Cultural views rega r di n g time schedules and pro f essional and ethical behaviors

B. Historical information a nd change control proce d ures

C. Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matr i x D. Resource availability a nd or g anizational culture and structure

21. Which of the following outpu t s from the Control Schedule p r ocess aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule p e rformance in d ex (SPI), or any perfor m ance status to stakeholders? A. Performance organiz a tions

B. Schedule baselines

C. W ork performance m e asurements

D. Chan g e requests

22. A project manager c a n choose from several t e chniques to re s olve conflicts between team members. Which technique can res u lt in a win-win situation?

23. What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type? A. Organizational br e akd o wn structure (OBS)

B. Resource breakd o wn structure (RBS)











C. W ork breakdown structure (WBS) D. Project b r eakdown structure (PBS)

24. Which conflict resolution technique pr o duces the most l a s ting results? A. Withdraw/avoid

B. Smooth/accommodate

C. Compro m ise/reconcile

D. Collabo r ate/problem s o lve

25. Which of the following docu m ents should the p r oject mana g er up d ate as a result of implementing t he

Plan Risk R e sponses process? A. Risk Report

B. Issue Log

C. Assumption Log

D. Risk Management Pl a n

26. H o w is the Proje c t Scope Mana g ement proc e ss di f ferent in agile and a daptive proj ec ts than in traditional p r ojects?

27. Which set of competencies should a project mana g er hav e ?

28. Which of the following is an estim a ting technique that uses the values of paramet e rs from previous similar projects for estimating the same parame t er or measu r e f or a current project?

29. The p roc urement p r ocess that documents agree m ents a n d rela t ed do c umentation for future reference is known as:

30. C reati n g the project scope stat e ment is part of which pro c ess? A. Manage Scope

B. Collect Requirem e nts

C. Define Scope D. V alidate Scope

31. Hig h -level project risks a r e inclu d ed in which document? A. B u s iness case

B. Risk breakdown structure

C. Project c harter D. Risk register

32. An input requir e d to develop a p r eliminary pr o ject scope s t atement is: A. Organizational Structure

B. Organizational Process Assets

C. Organizational Matrix

D. Organizational Break d own Structures

33. Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people o r o r ganizations impacted by the project and d ocumenting r eleva n t information rega r ding their interests in, involve m ent in, and impact on the project:

34. What can increase the complexity of the Mana g e Stakeholder Engagem e nt process? A. The project m u s t be of high quality

B. The stak e holders are f rom di f ferent countries

C. The proj ec t m u s t comply with strict local government regula ti ons

D. The proj ec t has a tight budget and t imeline

35. The process of mon i toring t he status of the project to update project pr o gress and mana g e chan g es to the schedule baseline is :

36. What is a tool to improve team performance? A. Sta f fing plan

B. External feed b ack

C. Performance reports

D. Co-location

37. The fo r mal and info r mal interaction with othe r s in an orga n ization industr y , or professional environment is known as:

38. Which tool is cr i tical for the team to adapt to a high variability benefit project? A. Colocati o n

B. Collabora t ion

C. Flexibility

D. Specializ a tion

39. The a p p l ication of k n owle d ge, skills, tools, and techniques t o project act i v ities to me e t project requi r ements describes mana g eme n t o f which of the following?

40. A key benefit of the Manage C ommunications process is that i t enables: A. The best use of communication methods.

B. An e f ficie n t and e f fective communication flo w . C. Project costs to be reduced.

D. The best use of communication technolog y .

41. Projects are underta k en by an organization to support the: A. Product p erformance.

B. Budget process.

C. Collective capabilities. D. Organizational strateg y .

42. What risk technique is used to q u antify the probability and impact of r i s k s on project objectives? A. Expert judgment

B. Ri s k regi s try

C. Risk response planni n g

D. Interviewing

43. The process of defining how the pro j ect scope will be validated and cont r olled is known as: A. Define Scope.

B. Develop Project Mana g ement Plan. C. Plan Sco p e Managem e nt.

D. Plan Quality Manage m ent.

44. C h an ge s to formally controlled d o cumentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

45. The pro c ess of estimating the ty p e and qu a ntity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies requi r ed to p erform each activity is k n own as:

46. W h at is the first step in the St a k eholder Ma na gement pro c ess? A. Plan Stakehold e r En g agement

B. Identify Stakehold e rs

C. Manage Stakeholder Responsibility D. Monitor Stakehold e r Activity

47. An output of the V alidate Scope process is: A. A requirements t r aceability matrix.

B. The scope managem e nt plan. C. W ork performance re p orts.

D. Chan g e requests.

48. D uring which kno w ledge a rea stage w o uld a project man a ger close all contracts a p pro p riately and then close t h e phase?

49. The ind i vidual or gr o up th a t provides resourc e s and suppo r t for a project and is acc o untable for succe s s i s the:

50. Which type of analysis sys t emically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitati v e information to determine which interests shou l d be taken into account throughout the pro j ect?

51. The p roc ess of monitoring the status of the project and pro d uct scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

52. Which Process Group contains t h e processes perform e d to co m plete t h e work defined in the pro j ect managem e nt plan to satisfy t he project spe c ifications?

53. Which p roject risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

54. Which of the following terms indic a tes a delive r able-orien te d hierarchical de c omposition of the project work?

55. The p r o j ect gove r na n ce approach should be d e scribed in t h e: A. change c o ntrol plan

B. project s c ope

C. statement of work











D. project mana g ement p lan

56. A project manager is writing a document that obligates the seller to provide the specified prod u cts, services, or results, and obligates the buyer to compensate the selle r . This d ocument re p resents a legal relationship that is subje c t to remedy in the courts.

Which document is described? A. General terms

B. Contract a greem e nt

C. Chan g e request

D. Statement of work

57. Which type of depen de ncy is legally or contractually required or inhe r ent in the nature o f work and often involves phys i cal l i mitations?

58. The pro j ect team i s b rainstor m ing on approaches to deliver the upcoming pro d u c t launch for which the project has been cha r tered. The p r oject manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

59. In which sphere of influence is the project mana g er demon s trating the value of project management and advanc i ng the e f fic a cy of the project management o f fice (P M O)?

60. A project manager is reviewing the change r e q u ests for proj ec t documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this r e v iew belo ng ?

61. W h at are the key t o ols for managing pro j ect knowled g e? A. Expert judgment and d ata gatheri n g

B. Networking and storytelling

C. Data ana l ysis and decision making D. Prototypes and produ c t analysis

62. What n a me(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do - Check-Act cycle? A. Pareto

B. Ishikawa

C. Shewhart - Deming

D. Delphi

63. A project is in the planning p h ase. The project manag e r is considering d i f ferent elements that may influence or constra i n the project.

Which of the following int e rnal ente r prise environm e ntal facto r s should the p roj ect manager consider? A. Indust r y stand a rds

B. Market c o nditions

C. Legal restrictions

D. Employee capability

64. Which is the best w ay for a project manager to ensure e f fi c ient and fre q uent communication with managem e nt and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environmen t ?

65. Which of the following is a t ool or technique u s ed in the A cquire Project T eam process? A. Networking

B. T raining

C. Negotiati o n D. I s sue log

66. For a stakeholder with low interest and high powe r , the project manager should: A. Monitor t h e stakeholde r .

B. Manage the stakeholder closel y . C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied. D. Keep the stakeholder informed.

67. Scope verification is PRIMAR I L Y concerned w ith which of the following? A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.

B. Accuracy of the work deliverables. C. Approval of the scope statement.

D. Accuracy of the work b reakdo w n structure.

68. An input to the Plan Cost Management process i s : A. Cost est i mates

B. Resource calendars C. The proj ec t charter D. The risk register

69. A p r oj ec t manager uses their networking skills to build agreement with a di f ficult st a kehold e r . What level of influence did the project manag e r a p ply?

70. The foll o wing chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

















Based on the chart, what is the schedule variance (SV) for T ask 8? A. -2,000

B. -1,000

C. 1,000

D. 2,000

71. Which tool or technique is u s ed in the Perform Integrated C han g e Cont r ol process? A. Decomposition

B. Modeling techniques C. Resource optimization D. Meetings

72. Which p r ocess identifies whether the ne e ds of a project can best be met by acquiring pro d ucts, services, or results ou t side of the org a nization?

73. Which of the following events would result in a baseline u pd a t e?

74. What is the probability of o ccurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

75. The p roc ess of prioritizing risks f o r further ana l ysis or a ction is known as: A. Plan Risk Managem e nt.

B. Plan Risk Responses.

C. Perform Qualita t ive Risk Analysis.











D. Perform Quantita t ive Risk Analysis.

76. U n der w hich circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a p ro gram?

77. A project manager is analyzing a few netw o rk diagrams in ord e r to determine the minimum duration of a project.

Which diagr a m should the project manager ref e re n ce?

78. What is the name of a graphic display of project team mem b ers and their rep o r t ing re l ationships? A. Role dep e ndencies chart

B. Reporting flow diagram

C. Project o r ganization chart

D. Project team structure diagram

79. " T ailori n g" is defined as the:

80. Or g anizations perceive risks as:

81. Which of the following correctly lists the configuration m a na g ement activities included in the

Integrated C han g e Cont r ol process?

82. The p ro j ect manager implemen t ed the stakeholder e n ga ge ment plan a n d realized t h at s ome up d ates should be made.

Which components of the proje c t management plan should be modi f ied? A. Project c h arter and stakeholder e n g agement pl a n

B. Risk ma n agement pl a n and stakeholder e n ga ge ment plan

C. Communications ma n agement pl a n and stakeholder e n ga ge ment p l an

D. Project charter and communications managem e nt plan

83. What tool should a project manager use to e f f iciently manage project r es ources? A. List of project resources

B. Resource breakd o wn structure

C. Resourc e s detailed in the project scope

D. Resource requi r ements

84. A large p ortion of a projects budget is typically expend e d o n the processes in which Process Gr o up? A. E xecuting

B. Planning

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Closing

85. While p r epari n g the p roject mana g ement plan o n a weekly ba s is, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the st a f f via e-mail. In which part of t h e plan will this t ype of information b e included?

86. What are the identified risks for doing excess i ve decomposition in a W BS? A. I n su f f i c ient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. I n su f f i c ient project funding and ine f fective use o f resources

C. Disqualification of sellers and non -p roductive managem e nt e f forts D. Non- p ro d uctive man a gement e f f ort and ine f ficient use of resources

87. A p r oject manag e r at a publi s hing company d ec ides to initi a te the editing phase of the project as so o n as each chapter is writt e n.

Which type of Sequence Activiti e s tool and technique is involv e d, considering that there was a start-to-start relation s hip with a 15-d a y delay?

88. V ariance and trend a nalysis is a tool and technique used i n which process? A. Perform Q ualita t ive Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C. Control Ris k s

D. Plan Risk Responses

89. Which of the following is an exam p le of the s i mplest f i xed - p r ice contract? A. Purchase requisition

B. Purchase ord e r

C. V erbal ag r eement D. Request for quote

90. Which of the following is an input i nto the Develop Project T eam process? A. Enterprise environmen t al factors

B. Organizational process assets

C. Project s t a f f a s s ignments D. Performance reports

91. Project manag e rs who lead by example and follow thro ug h on the commitments they make demonstrate the key inte r personal skill of:

92. A p r oject manag e r is updating t h e i r CV or r esume and r eal iz es that they need to imp r ove skills related to expertise in the indust r y and organ i zational knowled g e.

Which dimension of PMI ’ s T a l ent T riangle best relates to this n eed to improve? A. Strategic and busine s s management skills

B. Leadersh i p skills

C. T echnical project man a gement D. Organizational man a g e ment

93. Which input to Collect Requir e men t s i s used to i dentify sta k e holders w h o can pro v ide information o n requi r ements?

94. The or ga nization's perceived bal a nce between risk taking a nd risk avoi d ance is r efl e cted in the risk: A. Responses

B. Appetite C. T olerance D. Attitude

95. Which ac tivity may occur at project or phase closure? A. Acceptance of deliverables

B. Change r equests

C. Project mana g ement p lan updates

D. Benchmarking

96. At the beginn i ng of an iteration, the team will work to dete r mine how many of the highest-priority items on the backlog list can be delive r ed within the next iteration.

Which of the following a c tivities is done first? A. Create W ork Brea k down Structure (WBS) B. Create Scope Baseline

C. Collect R equire m ents D. Define Scope

97. Which p roject documents can determine the b udget?

98. Job satisfaction, cha l leng i ng work, and su f f i c i e nt financial compensation are values related to wh i ch interpersonal skill?

99. Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Respon s es process? A. Risk urgency assessment

B. Organizational process assets

C. Risk register

D. Schedule managem e nt plan

100. The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

101. A weigh t ing system is a tool for which area of Conduct Pro c urements? A. Plan contracting

B. Requesting seller responses

C. Selecting seller's

D. Planning purcha s e a n d acquisition

102. Which of the Project T ime Management processes analyzes ac t ivity sequencing, du r ations, resource requi r ements, and schedule constraints?

103. An output of the Crea t e WBS process is: A. Scope baseline.

B. Change r equests.

C. Accepted deliverables. D. V ariance analysis.

104. One of the objectives of a quality audit is to: A. highlight the ne e d for root cause analysis.

B. share the process docu m entation a mong stakeholders. C. o f fer assistance with non-valu e -a dd ed activities.

D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

105. Which d o cument de s cribes the necessary info r mation to deter m ine if a project is worth the requir e d investment?

106. Which type of contract is most c o mmonly us e d by buying org a nizations because t h e price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change un l ess the s c o p e of work c h anges?

107. Identify Risks is part o f which Process Group? A. Planning

B. E xecuting

C. Closing D. Initiating

108. Which of the following is an exam p le of a risk symptom? A. Failure to meet intermediate milest o nes











B. Force of nature, such as a flood

C. Risk threshold target

D. Crashing, front load i ng, or fast track i ng

109. Which input will be used when tasked with developing the h u man resou r ce plan? A. Project mana g ement p lan

B. Activity resource requi r ements

C. Resource calendar

D. Project s t a f f a s s ignments

110. V erification of project deli v erables occurs during which p r ocess? A. Develop preliminary p r oject scope statement

B. Close Pro j ect or Phase C. Develop p roject charter D. Create W BS

111. The d e g ree, amo u nt, or volume of risk that an org a nization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

112. Which d ocument in the pro j ect mana g ement p lan can be updated in the Plan Procurement

Managem e nt process? A. Budget estimates

B. Ri s k matr i x

C. Require m ents documentation D. Procurement docume n ts

113. What is the best tool to ca l culate the critical path on a pro j ect? A. Critical c h ain method

B. Graphical evaluation a nd review technique (G E R T) diagram

C. Gantt ch a rt

D. Project network diagram

114. Which output is the approved v e r s ion of the time-phased project budget? A. Resource calendar

B. Scope baseline C. T rend an a lysis D. Cost baseline

115. Which is an examp l e of leveraging evolving tr e nds and em e rging p r actices in Project Integration

Managem e nt?

116. Identifying major del iv erab l es, deciding if adequate cost e stimates can be deve l op e d, and identifying tangible compon e nts of e ach deli v er a ble are all p a rt of which of the following?

117. Pow e r , u rgenc y , and legitimacy a r e attributes of which sta k eholder classification model? A. Salience

B. Influence/impact

C. Power/interest D. Power/influence

118. Duri n g w hich process does a p roj e ct manager review all pri o r information to ensure th a t all project work is com p leted and th a t the project has met its o bjectives?

119. The p roc ess of identifying the stakeholders' i n formation n e eds is completed duri n g: A. Plan Communications.

B. Manage Stakeholder E xpectations. C. Stakeholder Analysis.

D. Identify Stakehold e rs.

120. Wh e n managi n g costs in an agile environment, what should a project manag e r consider? A. Lightweight estimation methods c a n be used as changes arise

B. Agile envi r onments make cost aggregation more di f ficult C. Agile environments make projects costlier and uncertain D. Detailed cost ca l culations benefit from frequent changes

121. Which risk managem e nt strategy s eeks to eliminate the uncertainty ass o ciated with a particular u p side risk by ensuring that the opport u nity is realized?

122. Which tool or technique is u s ed in the Estimate Costs proc e ss? A. Acquisiti o n

B. Earned value mana ge ment

C. V endor b i d analysis D. Forecasting

123. A team was hired to develop a n e xt generation dro n e. The team c reated a prototype a nd sent it to t h e customer for testing. The feed b ack was used to refine the requ ire ments.

What technique is the te a m using? A. Early req u irements gathering

B. Feedback analysis

C. Progressive elaborati o n

D. Require m ents documentation

124. An example of a group de c ision - making tec h nique is: A. nominal group techni q ue

B. majority

C. a f finity di a gram

D. multi-crit e ria decision analysis

125. An org a nizational st r ucture that stand a rdizes the project-re l ated gover na nce and facilitates the sharing of r es ources, methodol o gies, tools, and techniques is referred to as:

126. Which is a communication method used in the Rep o rt Performance pro c ess? A. Expert judgment

B. Project mana g ement methodol o gy

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Status re v iew meetings

127. Perform Quality Con t rol is acco m plished by:

128. Which is the Define Scope t e chnique used to gene r ate di f ferent app r oa c hes to exec u te and perfo r m the work of the project?

129. What is the responsibility of the p r oject manager and the fu nctional manager res p ectively? A. Oversight for an admin is tra t ive area; a facet of t h e core b u siness

B. Achieving the project objectives; providing ma n agement ov e r s ight for an administrati v e area

C. A facet of the core business; a chieving the proje c t objecti v es D. Both are responsible for ach i eving the project objectives.

130. One of the fundamental tenets of modern qua li ty management states t h at quality is:

131. A purc h ase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is t h e simplest form of what ty pe of contract?

132. Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder eng a gement plan?

133. A p r oj ec t manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Manage m ent process. Which considera t ions should the pro j ect manager apply?

134. Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resour c e Plan? A. T eam performance assessment

B. Roles and responsibilities

C. Sta f fing mana g ement p lan

D. Enterprise environmen t al factors

135. Wh e n cost varian c e is negative and schedu l e variance is p o s itive, the p roject is: A. under bu d get and beh i nd schedule.

B. over budget and ahe a d of schedule. C. on schedule.

D. complete; all planned values have been e arn ed .

136. A project team mem b er agr e es to change a p ro ject deliverab l e after a conversation with an extern a l stakeholde r . It i s later discov e red that the change has had an a d verse e f fect on ano t h e r d eliverable. This could have been a v oided if the project team had implemented:

137. A project charter is an ou t put of which Process Group? A. E xecuting

B. Planning C. Initiating D. Closing

138. Analyzing activity sequences, du r ation s , resource require m ents, and schedule constraints for project and monitoring and controlling relat e s to which process?

139. Overlo ok ing negati v e stakeholders can result in a/an:

140. Which of the following is an output of the Define Act i viti e s process? A. Activity l i st

B. Project p l an

C. Activity d u ration estimates

D. Project schedule

141. Which p rocess de t ermines the c o rrectness of deliverable s ? A. V erify Deliverables

B. V alidate D eliverables C. Review Deliverables D. Analyze Deliverables

142. Which in p ut may influence qu a lity assurance work and should be monito r ed within the context of a system for configurati o n managem e nt?

143. Given the following i n formation:

- Activity A t akes one we ek .

- Act i vi t y B t a kes three weeks.

- Act i vi t y C t a kes two weeks.

- Act i vi t y D t a kes f ive weeks.

- Act i vi t y A st arts at the same time as A c t i vi t y B .

- Activity C f o llows Activity B and Activity A.

- Act i vi t y D f o llows Act i v i t y C.

How long will it take to c o mplete the project? A. 8 weeks

B. 9 weeks C. 10 weeks D. 1 1 weeks

144. Stakeho l der satisfaction should be managed as a key project: A. Benefit

B. In i tiative C. Objective D. Process

145. Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project prog r esses?

146. The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probabili t y of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

147. Which is the main benefit o f managing and tai l oring strateg i es in the Stakeholder E n gagem e nt process?

148. What a r e the formal and informal policies, procedu r es, and guideli n es that could im p act how the project's sc o pe is managed?

149. Which of the following investigates the likelihood that ea c h s p ecific risk will occur? A. Risk register

B. Risk audits

C. Risk urg e ncy assessment

D. Risk probability and impact assessment

150. Which i n dex is the calculated proj ec tion of cost perform a n c e that must be achie v ed on the remaini n g work to meet a specified managem e nt goal?

151. Which is a di f ference betwe e n le a dership a n d managem e nt?

152. Which tool and technique is used in Con d uct P r ocurements? A. T eaming agreem e nts

B. Expert judgment

C. Bidder conferences

D. Contract t ypes

153. A project manageme n t o f fice manages a numb e r of aspects in c luding the:

154. After defining activiti e s in project schedule management, w h ich process e s should a project manager follow?

155. Risk ex i s ts the moment that a project is: A. planned.

B. conceived. C. chartered. D. executed.

156. The pro j ect charter is an input to which process? A. Develop Project Chart e r

B. Develop Project Mana g ement Plan











C. Monitor and Cont r ol Project W ork

D. Perform Integrated Ch ange C ontrol

157. Which item is a formal propo s al to modify any d ocument, deliverable, or b aseline? A. Change r equest

B. Require m ents documentation

C. Scope baseline

D. Risk urg e ncy assessment

158. Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Commu n ications process? A. Project c o mmunications, project managem e nt plan up d ates, pr o ject documen t s updates, and org a nizational process a ssets updates

B. W ork performance inf o rmation, change r e quests, project management pl a n updates, and project documents updates

C. Communications ma n agement pl a n, project managem e nt plan up da tes, work perfor m ance rep o rt, and project documents update

D. Stakeholder en g age m ent p l an, change r e quests, project manag e ment pl a n updates, and project documents updates

159. A procu r ement man a gement plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan? A. Resource plan

B. Project mana g ement p lan

C. Cost cont r ol plan

D. Expected mone t ary value plan

160. Skills n e c essary for project management such as motiv a ting to provide encour a ge m ent; listening actively; persuading a te a m to perform an action; a nd summarizing, recappi n g, and iden t ifying next st e ps are known as :

161. Which of the following state m ents best descri b es the influence of stakeholders a n d the cost of changes as proje c t time advances?

162. According to PMBOK, the de f inition of Plan Risk Managem e nt is:

163. An inte n tional activity to m odify a nonconform i ng pr o duct o r product component is called: A. defect repair

B. work repair

C. corrective action D. preventive action

164. Which Mana g e Co m munications t ool or technique focuses on identifying and man ag ing barr i ers? A. Communication methods

B. Informati o n technology

C. Communication models

D. Information management systems

165. Stakeho l ders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Iden t ify Stakehold e rs process sh o uld be:

166. Which Process Group includes the Manage Sta k ehold e r Enga g e m ent process? A. E xecuting

B. Planning

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Initiating

167. Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the org a nizational level and be outside of t h e project's:

168. Which type of estimating can pro d uce higher l ev els of accu r ac y , depending up o n the sophisticati o n and u n derlying data b u ilt into the model?

169. A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity a nalysis f o r c o mparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

170. What two key com p onents of the project management plan are used a s inputs to c r eate the cost managem e nt plan?

171. Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process G r oup?

172. The p r o j ect has a c urrent cost performan c e in d ex of 0.80. A ssuming this perfor m ance will continue,











the new estimate at completion is $1000.

What was the original b u dget at c ompletion for the project? A. $800

B. $1000

C. $1250

D. $1800

173. Portfolio Manageme n t is manag e ment of:

174. The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172, 5 00. W hat is the actual cost of t h e project? A. US$158,700

B. US$172,500

C. US$187, 5 00

D. US$245, 6 00

175. Which b asic quality tool ex p lains a change in the de p en d e n t variable in relationship to a change observed in the correspo n d i ng ind e pe n dent variabl e ?

176. Which is an examp l e of an internal en t erprise e nvironmental factor? A. Market s h are br a nd r e cognition

B. Fa c tory l o c ation

C. Local government re g ulation

D. Industry r esearch

177. The pro c ess of identifying and documenting pr o ject roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a st a f fing mana g ement p lan is known as:

178. What communication methods w ould a project manag e r use for overall e f fective project communication?

179. A p r oject manag e r is assigned to a s trategic project. Seni o r management asks the project manager t o give a presentation in or d er to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the pro j ect manager attempt to influence? A. The project and the organization

B. The orga n izat i on and the industry

C. The subject m a tter e x p erts and the project

D. The change control b o ard a n d the org a nization

180. A project lifecycle is d efined as:

181. The cost of nonconfo r man c e in a project includes: A. t e sting

B. rework

C. inspections D. training

182. The foll o wing is a network diag ra m for a project.









The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duratio n ? A. 10

B. 12











C. 14

D. 16

183. The process of for m alizing acceptance of the completed pro j ect deliverables is known as: A. V alidate Scope.

B. Close Pro j ect or Phas e . C. Control Qualit y .

D. V erify Sc o pe.

184. In which project cost managem e nt process is w ork perform a nce data an output? A. Plan Cost Managem e nt











B. Estimate Costs

C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs

185. At which point of the proje c t is the uncertainty the highe s t and the risk of failing the greatest? A. Final phase of the project

B. S tart of the project

C. End of the project

D. Midpoint of the project

186. Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

187. The A g ile principle “welco m e changing r e qui re ments, even late in development” rel a tes to which agile manif e sto?

188. The p roc ess of aggregating t he es timated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authoriz e d co s t baseline is:

189. What are the two most common contract types used in a project? A. Cost plus awa r d fee ( C P AF) contract and fixed price contract

B. Fixed price con t ract and cost-reimbursable cont r act

C. Cost-reimbursable co n tract and time and mater i al (T&M) contract

D. T ime and material (T&M) contract a nd cost plus awa r d fee ( C P AF) contract

190. What is the critical chain method?

191. An input to the Perform Quanti t ative Risk Analysis process is the: A. quality managem e nt plan.

B. project mana g ement p lan.

C. communications management plan. D. schedule managem e nt plan.

192. An out p ut of Con t rol Schedule is: A. A project schedule ne t work diag ra m B. A schedule managem e nt plan

C. Schedule data

D. Schedule forecasts

193. Inputs to the Define Act i vities process include:

194. Which of the following involves making information availab l e to project st a keholders in a timely manne r ?

195. In Project Resource Manageme n t, which process uses recogni t ion a n d rew a rds as a tool and technique?

196. Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective seller s ? A. Procure m ent statement of work

B. Resource calendars











C. Procurement docume n t D. Indepen d ent estimat e s

197. D u ring which process would stakehold e rs pr o vide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

198. Which technique is c o mmonly u s e d for the Perform Quantit a tive Ri s k Analys i s proces s ? A. Brainsto r ming

B. Strategies for opportu n ities

C. Decision tree a n alysis

D. Risk data quality assessment

199. Due to today ’ s com p etitive g lobal market, organizations re q uire more t h an technical project management skills.

Which of the following skills c an support long-range strategic objectives that c ontribute to t he bottom li n e? A. Planning and risk management skills

B. Communication and time manag e ment skills

C. Business intelligence a nd lead e rship skills











D. Strategic and busine s s management skills

200. Which d ocument can help a proj ec t manager to leverage h i storical project informati o n? A. Lessons lear n ed register

B. Schedule baseline

C. W ork performance da t a

D. Deliverab l e acceptance forms

201. Project manag e rs play a key role in performi n g integration on a project. What are the three di f ferent levels of i n tegration?

202. A construction proj ec t team has just had an inevitable de la y due to a natural calamit y . What should the project mana g er do n ext?

203. Wh e n d oes Monitor and C o ntrol Risks occur? A. At project initiation

B. During w o rk performa n ce analysis C. Throug ho ut the life of the project D. At project milestones

204. Which of the following is an output of the Plan Q uality proce s s ? A. Project document upd a te

B. Control chart

C. Cost performance ba s eline

D. Organizational process asset update

205. Which p rocess group contains the processes p erformed to finalize all activities? A. Planning Process Gr o up

B. E xecuting Process Group

C. Monitoring and Contr o lling Process Group

D. Closing Process Group

206. Monte C arlo is w hich type of risk a nalysis technique? A. Probability

B. Quantitative

C. Qualitative











D. Sensit i v ity

207. W h at should a p r oj ec t manager reference to u nderstand w here responsibilit y , acco u ntabilit y , and authority reside within a company?

208. Which of the following is a means of reach i ng a group deci s ion in which everyone agr e es on a single course of action?

209. The p r o j ect manager is creat i ng the communications managem e nt plan. Which group of inputs is r equir e d to b e gin?

210. What is the di f ference between ite r ative s c heduling and o n - d emand scheduling p r actices?

211. The Pr oc ess Group that invo l ves coordinating people a nd r e s ources, as well as integrating and performing t he activities of the project in accordance with the p roject mana g ement plan is known as: A. In i tiating.

B. Planning. C. Execu t ing.

D. Monitoring and Controlling.

212. Fund i ng limit reconciliation is a to o l and technique used i n w hich process? A. Control Costs

B. Determine Budget

C. Estimate Costs D. Control Budget

213. Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectiv e l y , what are these phases known as?

214. The rev i ew of a selle r ’ s progress towa r d achi e ving the goa l s of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

215. Which of the following strateg i c c o nsiderations often results in project authorization? A. Customer req u ests and/or issue resolution

B. Stakeholder expectations and / or strategic oppor t unity (business need) C. T echnological advan c ement and/or senior executive request

D. Market demand and/ o r legal requi re ments

216. Change reque s ts are an output from wh i ch Project Integration Managem e nt process? A. Direct and Manage Pr o ject Executi o n

B. Develop Project Mana g ement Plan

C. Close Project

D. Develop Project Charter

217. Which e nterprise en v ironmen t al f a ctors are considered dur in g cost estimating? A. Market c o nditions and published c o mmercial information

B. Company structure and market conditions

C. Commercial information and comp a ny structure D. Existing h uman resou r ces and market conditions

218. Which type of team can be de f ined as a group of people wi t h a shared g oal who fulfill their roles











although sp e nding little or no time meeting face to face? A. Co-location team

B. V irtual team

C. Departm e ntal team D. Consultant team Answer: B





8 1 1.Who is responsible for determ i ni n g which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?

219. Or g anizational plan n ing impa c ts projects by means of proje c t prioritiz a tion ba s ed on risk, funding, and an o r g a nizations:

220. Using t h e three- p oint estimating technique, if the most li k ely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two month s , and the pessimistic duration is one yea r , how ma n y months is the expected activity duration?

221. In which Process Group are lessons learned d ocumented? A. Planning

B. Closing

C. Execu t ing











D. Initiating

222. A p r oj ec t manager is launching an informati o n system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for r e cipien t s to a ccess content at their o wn discretion.

Which communication method is desc r ibed? A. P u s h communication

B. Pull communication

C. Interacti v e communi c ation D. Stakeholder communication

223. Project managem e nt processes e nsure the: A. alignment with organi z ational strategy

B. e f ficient means to achi e ve the proj ec t objectives

C. performa n ce of the project team

D. e f fective f l ow of the pro j ect throughout its life cyc l e

224. Which statement is t r ue ab o ut the project management body of knowled g e? A. Recognized by ev e ry project man a ger

B. Constantly evolving

C. The sum of all knowledge relat e d to project managem e nt

D. A sum of knowled g e that shou l d be applied o n every project

225. Which of the following docu m ents allows the project manager to assess risks that m a y require ne a r term action?

226. Risk categorization i s a tool or t e chnique us e d in which process? A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Plan Risk Managem e nt

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

227. The p ro j ect manager is distributing project communications, c ollecting and storing pro j ect informatio n , and retrieving documents when r e quired. In which process is t h e project manag e r involved?

228. A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

229. Which is an e x ample of analog o us estimating?

230. What is the function of a Project Mana g ement O f fice (PMO)?

231. A project manager is working in a n environm e nt where r eq uirements a r e not very clear a n d may change during the project. In add i tion, the project has s e v eral st a keholders a n d is t e chnically complex. Which strat e gies should the project mana g er take into account f or risk management in this environment? A. Occasio n ally identif y , ev a luate, and classify risks

B. Review requirem e nts and c r oss-functional proj e ct teams

C. Include c o ntingency reserves and update the project management plan frequ e ntly

D. Frequent l y review inc r emental wo r k products a nd up d ate the requi r em e nts for proper prioritization

232. Com p a n y A has just been n ot i fied about a new legal requi rem ent for its b usiness operations. What is the c lassif i cation of this item?

233. What is an objective of the Develop Project T e am process? A. Feelings o f trust and improved cohesiveness

B. Ground r u les for interaction

C. Enhanced resource availability

D. Functional managers b ecoming more involved

234. Which act i vity in v o l ves ensuring that t he composition of a p rojects configuration ite m s is correct? A. Configuration Identification

B. Configuration Status A ccounting

C. Configur a tion V erification and A u dit D. Configur a tion Quality Assurance

235. Which stand a rd examines an ente r prise's proj ec t management process capabilities? A. PMBOK Guide

B. The Standard for Prog r am Manag e ment.

C. Organizational Project Manage me nt Maturity Model "OPM3" D. The Standard for Portfolio Manag e ment

236. A p r oj ec t manager of a civil c onstruction proj ec t is trying to understand t he local laws. What example of tailoring procurement could this b est be descr i bed as?

237. The compon e nt of the human resource manag e ment plan that i n cludes w ays in which team members can obtain certifi c ations that support the i r ability to benefit the project is known as:

238. Which of the following is an exam p le of schedu l e compress i on? A. Activity s e quencing

B. Resource leveling

C. Lead and lag adjusting

D. Crashing

239. If you are using an Ishikawa d iagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you eng a ged in?

240. Which es timating technique u s es the actual c o s ts of previ o us similar projects as a b asis for estimating t h e costs of t h e current project?

241. Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitat i ve Risk Anal y s i s process? A. Risk register

B. Risk data quality assessment

C. Risk cat e gorization D. Risk urg e ncy

242. Which p r ocess dete r mines the risks that may a f fect the project and documents their characteristics? A. Control Ris k s

B. Plan Risk Managem e nt C. Plan Risk Responses D. Identify Risks